20 Jul
2001
20 Jul
'01
5:41 a.m.
Hello,
Can someone please explain the following?
HOST1 belongs to NETWORK1. NETWORK1 has a proxy server and a firewall which connect it to the internet.
HOST2 belongs to NETWORK2 and is a VPN server.
Now, HOST1 acts as a VPN client, goes thru the proxy and the firewall and initiates a session with the VPN server.
Thus depending on HOST2, certain services of NETWORK2 are now available to HOST1.
Is the reverse true? ie can HOST2 access any of the services of NETWORK1, thru the connection established above?
Thanks a lot. Mayuresh K.
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